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Originally posted by thefinalw0rd Dy, Didn't Hitler retake the Rhineland (which was a DMZ) and unite with Austria before he began the brunt of his genocide? And maybe he even waited until he took the Sudentenland. I can't remember for certain, but that seems like how it went. I did a 15-page paper on how WW2 was the Allies fault for school last year...but I didn't get as much into the genocidal aspect of it. |
He actually started up the Death Camps in early 1938 from all accounts..... he started expanding at about the same time.... it is a toss u[p as to which came first.... though he needed to get his country on line first.... one of the reasons I think he started his genocidal campaign first.... open up jobs for the good folk of germany whilst getting rid of the "offal".... There are rumors that the Concentration Camps were officially started way back in 1933./.... I cannot find any info to substantiate this though....
Now how could WW2 be the allies fault???? Germany was the country that began to expand.... with great prejudice I might add.... and Japan was the country that bombed Pearl Harbor after we had decided to take a nuetral stance on the whole thing.... I would like to know how it was the allies fault???