Here is what I said my little fanboi---

""It is actually seen as an actual word within the American English language even though it is seen as a non-standard word. It has been in widespread use since the beginning of the 20th century. Yes it has two negatives which do make it redundant and yet it is still used for emphasis by even very educated speakers to enunciate a point or meaning.
""

Here is what Dic.com says(I usually use Merrian-Webster online because it is the "real" online dictionary. Which is why I said nothing about your dumb accusations.

""Irregardless is considered nonstandard because of the two negative elements ir- and -less. It was probably formed on the analogy of such words as irrespective, irrelevant, and irreparable. Those who use it, including on occasion educated speakers, may do so from a desire to add emphasis. Irregardless first appeared in the early 20th century and was perhaps popularized by its use in a comic radio program of the 1930s.""

Both seem to be very different besides the educated speaker part which I got from somewhere else as a descriptor.

Did you miss the part where it says it is an actual word on Merriam and who gives a shit about where they said not to use it