Thread: A question
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02-28-07

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dyshade View Post
Haha. No. They are distinct and seperate. Morals are seperate from laws. You know that. They may well closely relate to each other yet they are also quite seperate. A fine paradox yet one which defines both unto themselves. Law did not birth from morals nor did morals birth from law. Our morals can easily conflict with laws as the example I provided defines. As a matter fo fact this happens quite often. Yet for the "good of society" we keep those laws in place irregardless of personal moral feelings.

Nice, right?
You continue to confuse a society with an individual. If this is the juxtaposition of your argument then there really is nothing left to say. Most assuredly an INVIDUALS moral compass may conflict with that of the law (see goat above) and is why laws exist in the first place. However the shared morality of a society (this being the majoirty becuase the miniroty wont mean sheot unless the majority allow them to) will not conflict with the law and if it does the law usally does not last long (and why a conflict would ever exist? because the moral basis for that law has changed prior to the law being changed).


Hope
  
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