I think for some reasons you miss what iam writing its probably my fault so ill try it like this.

compare two objects ie a pen and a goat apply a single pupose to both objects and decide which better fulfills that purpose the one that better fulfills that purpose is more perfect then the other. Now if one object could not be improved upon it would be the perfect at fulfilling that purpose. As you said it is impossible to know this which is guess what my exact point that started the enitire debate. However it is possible that an object may be perfect at fulfilling a pupose it just cant be determined.

no I said if inifnite possiblities exist then there can be zero impossiblities. in other words the total number of impossiblities must = 0. Which of course it doesnt you have stated that impossiblities = atleast 1. By defintion you cant do ininifty - 1 so if impossibilities >= 1 you cant have possilbilities = ininity you have possibilities < infinity or a finite number of possiblities.



Lets say we had two pens a and b