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Originally Posted by mooser745 I just finished reading an article on Marilyn's death (this month's Playboy mag...which also has a great interview with Pacino and another good read on Super Bowl tix bookies.) I'm not an expert (although I admit to being a Forensic Files junkie), there were a few points that the article brought up that really make me wonder how it could have been classified as an "apparent suicide" and not further investigated as a murder. Though this might be fun to discuss...as I'm sure everyone has an opinion on theory. Feel free to add your thoughts:
1) Her house was completely bugged, under 24/7 surveillance from all sorts of people (FBI, CIA, Hoffa, etc.) So how could no one have heard, or even better, had a tape of what happened that night?
2) The autopsy report was compromised, with a majority of the substances reported "missing"...including that from her stomach (her death, they say, was caused from taking 30-40 pills...but how could that be confirmed without proper testing?)  She was planning to re-marry Joe DiMaggio (according to his niece), so the idea of killing herself (and not really leaving a note, or calling him) doesn’t seem to really make sense to me.
Mike |
You lost me for serious discussion when you said it was printed in Playboy...
Her place was bugged? By Hoffa? Hoffa wasn't even part of the government...that would have been a federal offense to wire her house. Why the hell would the CIA have her place bugged? Why the FBI?
As for her life plans, so what? Depression isn't a rational state of mind; she could have still been going through the motions of life and dealing with an unstable emotional state. Happens all the time, and they didn't have drugs like Prozac back then, so people fell back on the old standbys: Alcohol and downers.